Ever since learning the concept of the "Band of Investment" theory for developing a capitalization rate while attending Dr. Jack Boykin's 1977 appraisal class at VCU, I have been amazed that more commercial real estate professionals aren't aware of it.
In it's most basic form, it is simply the weighted sum of the mortgage constant and the desired equity return expressed as:
Cap Rate = (Equity Return Rate x Equity to Value Ratio) + (Mortgage Constant Rate x Loan to Value Ratio)
In a practical example, lets assume that an investor's expectation is 12% for their return on invested equity. Furthermore, his lender has assured him of their ability to provide him a 65% loan on the fictitious income producing property at 8% for 7 years with a 25 year amortization. Based on this, the mortgage constant is 9.26% rounded.
Therefore, the equation now looks like this:
Cap Rate = (12% x 35%) + (9.26% x 65%)
Cap Rate = 4.2% + 6.02%
Cap Rate = 10.22%
The pricing/valuation issues being discussed and covered in the headlines with respect to a collapse of commercial real estate values by as much as 40% currently, and the coming impact on banks which hold approximately 50% of the outstanding loans, can be easily understood if we develop a very simple example of a hypothetical property, the changes in financing over the past 2 years or so, and utilitizing the Band of Investment theory of capitalization rates.
Let's say three years ago, Investor A bought a strip center. At the time, he had banks and others competing to lend him money at 6% for 5 years at interest only. Investor A was obviously happy about this as the stock market hadn't been doing much for him and even when he was investing in stocks, the most he could borrow was 50%. The lenders competing on giving him money for his strip center acquisition were willing to finance 80% of the price. Personally, he thought that an 14% return to him on his 20% down payment would be great, but the competition to buy the center was putting him in a position to only get 8% on his initial equity.
Based on all of the foregoing, Investor A ended up buying the strip center at a cap rate of 6.4%, which was calculated:
Cap Rate = (8% x 20%) + (6% x 80%)
Cap Rate = 1.6% + 4.8%
Cap Rate = 6.4%
Now the same Investor A wants to sell his strip center to Investor B. However, in this new lending environment, the few lenders even willing to lend at all are quoting a 60% loan to price, 8.5% interest for 5 years with an amortization of 20 years. Investor B is nervous about whether all of the tenants are going to make it in this economic environment and therefore wants at least 15% on his equity.
Therefore, the new cap rate that Investor B is willing to pay at is 12.25% as calculated below:
Cap Rate = (15% x 40%) + (10.41% x 60%)
Cap Rate = 6% + 6.25%
Cap Rate = 12.25%
Not looking good for Investor A in this scenario.
A cap rate is simply the blended return an investor is willing to pay to achieve the return objectives of both his equity and the lenders loan payments. This is divided into the net income of the property to determine the price to pay.
A simple example is, $100,000 in net income is worth a $1,000,000 to someone with a cap rate of 10%.
Now lets compare the dire situation of our Investor A's strip center deal assuming that it had a $200,000 net income in 2006 and due to various reasons, that is close to the same net income he is selling to Investor B.
Here are the results:
Investor A bought at a cap rate of 6.4%, so if there was net income of $200,000, he paid $3,125,000 ($200,000 divided by .064). Of this purchase price, he borrowed $2,500,000 (80%) and put down $625,000 (20%).
Investor B wants to pay him today at a cap rate of 12.25% on the same net income of $200,000. This means Investor B wants to give Investor A $1,633,000, rounded, ($200,000 divided by .1225).
The value has dropped from $3,125,000 to $1,633,000 in three years, which happens to be around a 48% drop.
Investor A has lost all of his equity, and now he's in the hole to his lender to the tune of $867,000 if he has a recourse loan. This is more than his original investment.
Guess what? He's not going to sell....he can't.
As long as the property continues to cash flow and the lender doesn't demand payment on his loan, which they can't until 2011 for all intents and purposes, Investor A's motivation will be to squeeze as much as possible out of the rents remaining after deducting his debt service to the lender.
Out of $200,000 in net income, Investor A gets $50,000 per year. This will likely mean that any maintenance, roof leaks, pot holes, etc. that Investor A is responsible for and can put off and get away with, he will, as the cash saved from not performing these tasks will flow right into his pocket.
Once this starts happening, the tenants begin to also suffer, (their customers are starting to think the center looks trashy and it appears to be in decline and are going elsewhere to shop), so some of the tenants, who are also stretched thin, start asking for relief on their rent or just stop paying at all. The issues continue to escalate as Investor A gets more desperate because he needs to get something back from his $625,000 investment and since the lender is out of town, they will not see the deterioration. Besides, his loan is likely non-recourse so he won't have to do anything but turn over the keys when he's gotten as much as he can out of the situation and not pay back the deficiency between what the property would sell at and the outstanding loan balance.
Granted, much of the story above is dramatic to show a possibility, but I believe we will see a great deal of this occurring, much as it has in previous downturns.
The biggest outstanding question in all of this remains....who is going to blink first, the owner, lender, tenant or buyer?